I’M GUESSING THAT the virulent leftists who rammed the cap-and-tax bill through the house without giving anyone an opportuntity to actually — you know — read the bill (which wasn’t even complete at the time), believe that they have answered the constitutional forms for passage of a bill, and should The Won choose to sign the eventual bill into law, it will
— as they say — become the law of the land.
But I’m wondering.
Given that — we are told — the bill was actually not complete when the vote was taken, could that vote be said to have been invalid, being for a bill which did not, at the time of the vote, exist? Could there be a reasonable challenge mounted on the basis of a substantive fraud’s being perpetrated on the American people — beyond the one that is CAGW in the first place, that is?
Discuss among yourselves.